NEET Biotechnology - Principles and Processes PYQ practice sheet

20 previous-year NEET Zoology questions from Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, newest papers first. Biotechnology - Principles and Processes carries 46 of the Zoology questions in NEET 2020 to 2026, so this is a good place to test yourself after revising the chapter. Marking: +4 correct, −1 wrong.

Practise all 34 online

1.
RE-NEET 2026
During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.
- (A)
  ligation
- (B)
  denaturation
- (C)
  annealing
- (D)
  extension
2.
RE-NEET 2026
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- (A)
  Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- (B)
  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- (C)
  Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- (D)
  Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3.
RE-NEET 2026
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is for plant cells. Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- (A)
  Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
- (B)
  Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
- (C)
  A is correct but R is not correct
- (D)
  A is not correct but R is correct
4.
RE-NEET 2026
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Transformation B. Cloning site C. Selection D. Ori List-II: I. Restriction enzyme II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria III. Replication IV. Antibiotic Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A)
  A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- (B)
  A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
- (C)
  A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
- (D)
  A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
5.
NEET 2026
Match List I with List II: List-I: A. Genetically modified organism, B. Thermostable DNA polymerase, C. Ti plasmid, D. pBR322 List-II: I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, II. Bt cotton, III. Thermus aquaticus, IV. Escherichia coli Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A)
  A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- (B)
  A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
- (C)
  A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
- (D)
  A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
6.
NEET 2026
Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction:
- (A)
  Denaturation $\to$ Annealing $\to$ Extension
- (B)
  Extension $\to$ Annealing $\to$ Denaturation
- (C)
  Denaturation $\to$ Extension $\to$ Annealing
- (D)
  Annealing $\to$ Denaturation $\to$ Extension
7.
NEET 2026
Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences. Choose the answer from the options given below:
- (A)
  A and E only
- (B)
  D and E only
- (C)
  C and D only
- (D)
  A and B only
8.
NEET 2026
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A)
  A and D only
- (B)
  B and C only
- (C)
  B and D only
- (D)
  A and B only
9.
NEET 2026
Insertion of a foreign DNA at *Bam*HI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:
- (A)
  Tetracycline
- (B)
  Ampicillin and tetracycline
- (C)
  Gentamycin
- (D)
  Ampicillin
10.
NEET 2024
Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
- (A)
  10 bp
- (B)
  6 bp
- (C)
  4 bp
- (D)
  8 bp
11.
NEET 2024
What is the fate of piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism? A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organisms. B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient. C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA. D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integrated part of chromosome. E. It shows ability to replicate. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A)
  B and C only
- (B)
  A and E only
- (C)
  D and E only
- (D)
  A and B only
12.
NEET 2024
The following diagram showing restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y' genes: The map of the circular plasmid pBR322 shows the restriction sites *Eco*R I, Cla I, Hind III, *Bam*H I, Sal I, Pvu I, Pst I and Pvu II, and two marked regions, X and Y.
- (A)
  The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
- (B)
  Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
- (C)
  The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
- (D)
  The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
13.
NEET 2024
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
- (A)
  Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures.
- (B)
  Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type.
- (C)
  Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system.
- (D)
  A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product.
14.
NEET 2024
The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for
- (A)
  Tumour inhibiting plasmid
- (B)
  Temperature independent plasmid
- (C)
  Tumor independent plasmid
- (D)
  Tumor inducing plasmid
15.
NEET 2023
Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
- (A)
  Bright orange colour
- (B)
  Bright red colour
- (C)
  Bright blue colour
- (D)
  Bright yellow colour
16.
NEET 2023
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out
- (A)
  Polysaccharides
- (B)
  RNA
- (C)
  DNA
- (D)
  Histones
17.
NEET 2023
In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ________ metal are used.
- (A)
  Silver
- (B)
  Copper
- (C)
  Zinc
- (D)
  Tungsten or gold
18.
NEET 2023
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell. B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme. C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment. D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- (A)
  B, D, A, C
- (B)
  B, C, D, A
- (C)
  C, A, B, D
- (D)
  C, B, D, A
19.
NEET 2023
Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
- (A)
  Probe
- (B)
  BAC
- (C)
  YAC
- (D)
  pBR322
20.
NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise a specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A)
  Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
- (B)
  Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- (C)
  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- (D)
  Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Answer key

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